Within the books of Holy Bible there are verses that are easy to understand, clear or unconditionally explicit and others are simply allegorical, ambiguous or obscure. When a “man of extraordinary faith” reads the passages from his “favored” version, he tries to hold fast to each and every verse that expressly, remotely or even dubiously supports his personal beliefs for "Lord Jesus". He steadfastly believes that with the addition of two key ingredients - “Reliance and Hope” - any seemingly doubtful and dubious verse can ultimately emerge as an easy to understand passage. A passage  that would remove all his earlier reservations and convince him to accept Jesus Christ as his "True God". However, this kind of pietistic approach with blind faith does not alter the text that was originally written by the Gospel writers.

     Let us survey what realistically happens when these obscure or cryptic verses are rationally studied by the bible scholars. Such scholarly studies are usually conducted from all encompassing overall perspectives. Following these studies often give us an insight into the primary source document. The language in with the text was written by the author. These are the tools that help the readers in arriving at the true understanding of the author's mind. One other tool that if often recommended is the use of "human mind", a blissful gift given by God. Why would Christ Jesus, the righteous teacher and messiah, teach us to love our God "with all our mind" (Matthew  22:37), if the use of our logic and human brain to understand God's Word was to be regarded as the non religious methodology?

Verse No. 1
Jesus said: "The Father and I are one." (John. 10:30). 
Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This verse proves, Jesus was God, like his Father.

Study No. 1
In Greek, the language of the John's Gospel, the word 'heis' (masc.) means; 'Numerical one' and 'hen' (neut.); means 
'Unity - in purpose'. In this verse apostle John has used 'hen' (Strong's #1520). Hence, the apostle was speaking of the "Unity in purpose". Those who may not be familiar with the Greek language or cannot have the access to the world famous concordance by James Strong may please look up the marginal notes in New American Standard Bible (NASB), to find out the specific meaning of this word with reference to this verse.

The next obvious question could  be; What was that "Unity in purpose"? It was of conveying the Divine Message to mankind. Jesus passed on that Message and his Mission to his disciples. After having done that Jesus declared: 
"And the glory which Thou hast given me, I have given to them (disciples); that they may be one, just as we are one." 
   (John 17:22). 

Jesus also said: "Holy Father, protect them in your name that you have given me, so that they may be one, as we are one." 
    (John 17:11). 

In both the above verses the Greek word used by the apostle  is 'hen' (Strong's # 1520). No upright and God fearing individual would go to the length of admitting that Jesus had declared the Twelve Disciples to be "co-equal" in status, like him or like his  Father.

A question often raised is; If Jesus had not declared himself being "God", why did the Jews pick up the stones and were ready to kill him, upon hearing these words? The reply appears in the text that follows and there also appears a noteworthy conversation between Jesus Christ and Jews. Jesus did acknowledge before this angry crowd (see verse 36), that:

a) He was  "sanctified" by God. 
           (This act cannot be performed unless there are "two distinctly independent entities or parties". One party was doing the act of "sanctifying" while another was being "sanctified").

b) He was "sent " by God. 
          (This text proves; One entity was "the sender", while the other was "the sent").

c) He was "son" of God. 
         (This text proves; Jesus who had earlier quoted a verse from the Psalm to his contenders, was only asserting to be "the children of the Most High". Please read Psalm 82:6 and 7, for the details).

To say otherwise would simply indicate; Jesus who was "God Himself", upon seeing the stones being pickedwas petrified. He either mutated or modified his earlier Declaration of being "God" and involuntarily acknowledged that he was merely; 
"a child of God, sent by God and sanctified by God".

Study Supportive Passage:
Jesus said: "I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I." (Jn. 14:28). This verse unequivocally refutes the assertion that Jesus was "co-equal" in status, with his Father. 

Note:
Anyone who thinks that the word "greater" does not necessarily mean being greater in authority or higher in status, may please read John 13:16 along with 17:3. 

Study No. 2
One day to prove a point, Jesus picked up a child and said to his disciples; "Whoever receives this child  in my name receives me; and whoever receives me receives Him who sent me;" (Luke 9:48). 

This specific act of Christ Jesus and/or his explicit statement concerning this Child does not make; the Child and the Christ, co-equal or one in status.

The next plausible question would be did Jesus admit he too was sent by God just as he was sending the Child? The answer is found several verses. Here are two:

Jesus said: "...and that I do nothing on my own, but I speak these things as the Father instructed me."  John 8:28.

Jesus said: "...I have not spoken on my own, but the Father who sent me has himself given me a commandment about what to say and what to speak."  John 12:49.

Study Supportive Passage:
Jesus said; "Truly, truly, I say to you, a slave is not greater than his master; neither one who is sent greater than the one 
who sent him." (John 13:16). 

Verse No. 3
Jesus said; "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit," (Matthew 28:19). 

Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This verse endorses the 'Doctrine of Trinity'.

Study No. 3
Peake's Commentary on the Bible, published in 1919, is regarded by many scholars to be the standard book of reference for the Bible study. Commenting on the above quoted verse, it records; "This mission is described in the language of the church and most commentators doubt that the trinitarian formula was original at this point in Mt.'s Gospel, since the NT elsewhere does not know of such a formula and describes baptism as being performed in the name of the Lord Jesus (e.g. Ac. 2:38, 8:16, etc.)."

Tom Harpur, author of several bestsellers and a former professor  of New Testament, writes in his book 'For Christ's Sake'; "All but the most conservative of scholars agree that at least the latter part of this command was inserted later. The formula occurs nowhere else in the New Testament, and we know from the only evidence available (the rest of the New Testament) that the earliest Church did not baptise people using these words - baptism was "into" or "in" the name of Jesus alone."

The quoted verse (irrespective of it being authentic or otherwise), does not indicate that the three names mentioned are "co-equal" in their status and were also "co-eternal" in the time frame. Unless these two important qualifications are acknowledged, the verse fails to endorse the fundamental belief and principle of the 'Doctrine of Trinity'.

Any one who joins Islam also recites two names ; "Allah" and "Muhammad", while admitting the ordained Islamic "Confession of Faith".  But the later is regarded as the "servant" and "messenger" of Allah.

If the Father and His Son were both in "existence" from the Day One, and no one was, a micro second before or after, and, no one was "greater or lesser" in status, then why one is  called the Father and the other His begotten Son?

Study Supportive Passage:
"And Peter said to them, 'Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;...'" (Acts 2:38). 

It is most unlikely that apostle Peter could have disobeyed the specific command of his master for baptizing in the "three names" and instead baptized these people in "one" name.

Verse No. 4
"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father,
the Word, and the Holy Ghost, and these three are one."
                                                              I John 5:7. 
Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This verse endorses the 'Doctrine of Trinity'.

Study No. 4
The text quoted above does appear in the older editions of the Kings James Version, but has been omitted in the recent editions of the Revised Version. It does not appear in the New American Standard Bible, the New English Bible, the New Revised Standard Version (Catholic Edition), the Revised English Bible, the New International Version and many other revised versions because the quoted passage does not appear in the older Greek manuscripts.

Renowned historian Edward Gibbon calls the addition a "Pious Fraud" in his famous history book 'Decline and Fall of Roman Empire'.

Peak's commentary on the subject reads; "The famous interpolation after "three witnesses" is not printed even in RSV., and rightly. It cites the heavenly testimony of the Father, the logos, and the Holy Spirit, but is never used in the early trinitarian controversies. No respectable Greek MS contains it. Appearing first in a late 4th-cent. Latin text, it entered the Vulgate and finally the NT of Erasmus.

Study Supportive Passage:
Notwithstanding the above rejections, here is the next verse, number 8,  as it is found in Kings James Version; 
"And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood; and these three agree in one."

Are these three witnesses "co-equal"? Can blood be substituted with water? Can water be regarded as the same in any respect with the Spirit? Just as the spirit, the blood and the water are three separate entities, so are the first three witnesses, namely; the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit.

Verse No. 5
"And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness..." Gen. 1:26. 
Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": The use of terms "us" and "our" proves; the God created man through Jesus in "their" image. The Creator was not a singular entity.

Study No. 5
The editors of King James Version (The Hebrew-Greek Key Study Bible, 6th edition) write this in their commentary:

"The Hebrew word for God is 'Elohim' (430), a plural noun. In Genesis 1:1, it is used in grammatical agreement with a singular verb `bara' (1254), created. When plural pronouns are used, "Let us make man in our image after our likeness," does it denote a plural of number or the concept of excellence or majesty which may be indicated in such a way in Hebrew? Could God be speaking to angels, the earth, or nature thus denoting Himself in relation to one of these? Or is this a germinal hint of a distinction in the divine personality? One cannot be certain."

Furthermore, upon reading the following four verses from the Book of Genesis in connection with the creation, wherein the pronoun used by the author is "he" and not "we", clears the doubt and positively indicates; God Created His Creation Himself. The verses are Genesis 1:31, 2:2; 2:8 and 5:2.

Study Supportive Passage:
"And he (Jesus) answered and said unto them, 'Have you not read, that He which made them at the beginning made them male and female.'" (Matthew 19:4). This statement by Jesus also affirms that the Creator was a singular entity.

Study No. 6
Here is the entire text from the 'New American Standard Bible' John 20 : 27-28:

"Then he (Jesus) said to Thomas, 'Reach here your finger, and see my hands, and reach here your hand, and put it into my side; and be not unbelieving, but believing.' Thomas answered and said to him, 'My Lord and my God!'"

Please notice there was no question asked in the entire narration. Hence, the text which reads "Thomas answered" is  inaccurate.

The last phrase "My Lord and my God!" was not an answer but it was an outburst by Thomas, having seen something  inexplicable and baffling. It is not unusual that a man cries out; "O' my God!" when he sees something totally bizarre.

Below are the texts from two reputed versions of the Bible 
that support what Thomas said was not an answer to any question.

'New English Bible': Thomas said, "My Lord and my God!"

'Phillips Modern English Bible': "My Lord and my God!" cried Thomas.

Study Supportive Passage:
Apostle John writes, immediately after the discourse between Jesus and Thomas; "Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples,which are not written in this book; but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ."

If John had recognized the answer by Thomas to be  a testimony for the 'Deity of Jesus', and the observed silence by Jesus to be his acquiesce to such a testimony, then the apostle John would have asked us to believe "Jesus is the God", instead of "Jesus is the Christ" in the above verse.

Verse No. 7
"And when they (wise men from east) were come into the house, they saw the young child with Mary his mother, and (they) fell down, and worshipped him." Matthew  2:11
Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith":  Worshipping anyone other than God is a major sin and yet the wise knowingly worshipped Jesus, shows he was God.

Study No. 7
The Greek word used by the apostle in the above verse is 'prosekunesan'. It is derived from 'proskuneo' (4352), which literally means bow, crouch, crawl, kneel or prostrate.

The three wise men were looking for the prophesied Messiah. Upon seeing the one, they bowed to the ground and paid their homage which is expected. There is no text of their prayers. The editors of K.J.V. have mistranslated the text. Below are the two versions with the correct translations.

Study Supportive Passage:
In the 'New English Bible' the text of the quoted verse reads; 'bowed to the ground".

In the 'New Revised Standard Version' the text of the quoted verse reads: "they knelt down and paid him homage". 

A Christian    response   to some of the above.

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